仁王護國般若波羅蜜多經疏 1.49

1.49

Finally, questions and answers regarding [who spoke]. Question: Is it because the Buddha preached the Dharma that it says "have I heard", or is it because the Buddha did not preach that it says "have I heard"? Answer: In the Buddhabhūmi-śāstra, there are two explanations. First, Nāgasena, Asvabhāva, and others say: The Buddhas, the Tathāgatas, possess only three dharmas: great samādhi, wisdom, and compassion; having long departed from conceptual proliferation, they never preach the Dharma. Due to the Buddha's compassion and the conditional power of his original vows, images of the texts and meanings arise upon the consciousness of sentient beings. Although directly arising by the power of one's own wholesome roots, in terms of the dominant condition it is called the Buddha's preaching. For example, due to the overriding power of devas and the like, one obtains treatises, dhāraṇīs, and so forth in a dream. Second, Bandhuprabha and others say: The Buddha's body fully possesses the skandhas, āyatanas, and dhātus; because it is free from discrimination, it is called free from conceptual proliferation—how could not preaching the Dharma be called free from conceptual proliferation? That is to say, by the power of the wholesome roots of those fit to hear, and by the conditional power of the original vows, images of texts and meanings arise upon the Tathāgata's consciousness; this is produced from the Buddha's wholesome roots of benefiting others, and is called the Buddha's preaching. Although the consciousness of the hearer does not directly grasp it, an image resembling it clearly appears; hence it is called "have I heard".