四明尊者教行錄 3.15

3.15

Question 6: In Fazang's commentary not speaking of the theoretical possession of all dharmas, was it because he knew it but did not speak of it, or because he did not know it? If he knew it but did not speak of it, he would have the fault of concealing profound meanings. If he fundamentally did not know it, then he was not adept at discussing the perfect teaching; how could it be the same as our present perfect teaching? If his perfect teaching is not yet the same as our present perfect teaching, how much less so his final teaching?